tisdag 24 februari 2026

Frank Turek vs Frank Turek


Frank Turek
The 27 books of the New Testament didn't need specification of the Church to be and to be validly recognised as the Word of God.

Also Frank Turek
The canon of the OT was pretty much agreed on up to the Council of Trent, because there was never an ecumenical council that added the apocrypha.


So, Church Father after Church Father, local councils that have the correct 27 NT books, nothing like that recognising 45~46 OT books changes that the inspired OT was 39 books, according to the private opinion of St. Jerome and a local council that omitted Apocalypse from their 26 book NT canon (Laodicaea).

If Church recognition in a generalised way is enough to recognise the precise 27 books of the NT, it is also enough in a generalised way to recognise the full Catholic OT.

If the full Catholic OT would have needed an Ecumenical council, well, that means noone had the NT canon prior to Trent and perhaps Florence before that.

The position is absurd. Councils are there to confirm Tradition, not to create it.

If Frank Turek genuinely believes that Trent (or Florence before that) created a Tradition of 73 books, sorry, he doesn't know history./HGL

torsdag 19 februari 2026

"Nobody Believes That"


Frank Turek and a Catholic guy were speaking of justification, and Frank Turek said "Trent condemns salvation from grace alone through faith alone".

The Catholic guy said, "if by faith you mean a purely intellectual assent".

I think it was Frank Turek who said (sound off, I just read subtitles, and here both men were shown and shown too small for me to see who moved the lips), "nobody believes that."

Now, the thing about Trent is, it condemned LOADS of things no Christian faction was believing at this point.

It did condemn what it saw as errors of Protestantism.

Saying that a man who in goodwill and trusting God reads the Bible without having the guidance of the Church can find salvation is NOT among the condemned errors. What is condemned is persisting in an interpretation when you know it contradicts that of the Church's magisterium "through the ages" (paraphrasing in an SSPX sense) or "the sense that the Church" (meaning its magisterium) "hath held and now holds" (meaning, there is no condemnation of those who reject a modern position of the magisterium, known to be modern, if someone tells a Catholic "oh, you're fine if you believe the creation days were long ages" that's not even what the magisterial document said, in 1909 it said "theologians are free to discuss" ... basically whether to allow that or not ... a discussion that didn't take place), and there is an addition about contradiction "or also of the unanimous sense of the fathers".

But trying the Bible on your own, especially as a new Christian who has no experience of the Catholic Church is not condemned.

Now, in this case, there were actually Protestants, most notably Luther, who had come very close to saying things like "if I read the Bible, I can conclude that all Church Fathers and a Council dealing with this question, even an Ecumenical one, was in error" ... that is condemned in Session IV.

But when it comes to the great themes, and justification is one of them, the Council opted for condemning things that even Luther, Zwingli and Calvin would promptly condemn, and putting the condemnations against these in that context. Not just a list of pre-existing bad Protestant statements, but a map of errors in the direction of Protestantism.

General Council of Trent: Fifth Session
https://www.papalencyclicals.net/councils/trent/fifth-session.htm


General Council of Trent: Sixth Session
https://www.papalencyclicals.net/councils/trent/sixth-session.htm


These map out the whole doctrine, so to speak, of Original Sin (Session V) or of Justification (Session VI). They map it out by condemning things that no Catholic is allowed to say about these subjects.

CANON XX.-If any one saith, that the man who is justified and how perfect soever, is not bound to observe the commandments of God and of the Church, but only to believe; as if indeed the Gospel were a bare and absolute promise of eternal life, without the condition of observing the commandments ; let him be anathema.


In other words, Trent's condemning Free Grace. And unlike Evangelicals, the mainline historic Protestant Churches do have a historic penchant from their Reformers to Free Grace.

But there were indeed things condemned which no Protestant sect at the time believed, at least none of the bigger ones.

CANON I.-If any one saith, that man may be justified before God by his own works, whether done through the teaching of human nature, or that of the law, without the grace of God through Jesus Christ; let him be anathema.


Why exactly this take?

Why not be content as the Church had been in the days of Bishop Tempier and of Pope Pius IX to issue a list of actually extant errors?

Well, it was an Ecumenical Council, such are costly and may wreak some havoc in making people refuse them.

In Nicaea, one was content to condemn the error of Arius. Came Constantinople I, Ephesus I, Chalcedon, Constantinople II and III, six councils, by the way usually accepted by Lutherans and Calvinists, unlike Nicaea II, because the first of them was content to condemn errors already existing.

The Council Fathers at Trent kind of could see this coming, since Protestantism, among other things, hankered back to the heresiarchs condemned in Constance, namely Wyclif (absent, already dead) and Hus.

So, they basically settled for a deep dive, "let's get everything right!" in order to avoid centuries of disputes about what the original condemnations were really supposed to condemn or not condemn, allow or even enjoin.
/Hans Georg Lundahl

lördag 14 februari 2026

Ortlund's Main List


He's given a talk on his youtube with the title Why Protestants Win the Church History Debate (Newman Was Wrong), right now, I'm not answering the video as such, but his "main list", an extract of a few minutes.

His claim is that each of these, Catholicism took time to develop, so Protestantism is a return.

The first problem is, return is not preservation. If you think the original Church had two sacraments, and that the seven sacraments are an accretion and so you join a new Church that has only two, and say it is the original one, just because it has, on your view, the original teaching, you are, whatever your argument about the fact as such, acting as Mormons and JW who openly say that the Church apostatised and needs to be, as an organisation, refounded. And the problem with that is Matthew 28:16—20.

Especially, if you recall, Jesus founded His Church as one "organisation".

When the reformers themselves faced a similar charge in 0:48 their own day of departing from church history, they carefully worked through the historical data demonstrating that 0:55 what they were departing from were slow late developments within church history.


They had far less data to prove their position (on some of the items) had survived along the "slow late development" ...

1:02 In some cases, developments introduced relatively late in church history. For example, the reformers protested the 1:09 vast sacramental system that had developed way beyond the early church.


Some guys wrote books called "De Sacramentis" and included only Baptism and the Eucharist.

Does this mean they didn't regard Confirmation/Chrismation, Penance, Extreme Unction and the "Social Sacraments" Ordination and Marriage as Sacraments? No.

Chrismation is arguably a way to interpret a thing mentioned in the Baptism section of St. Ambrose' work of this title.

And the only three sacraments "of initiation" are Baptism, Confirmation, Eucharist. Then there are two of repair and two social ones.

But "sacramentum" is a translation of "mysterion" and St. Ambrose' work has the title On the Mysteries. However, a mysterion has or is an initiation. Hence, the Semantics of the word in the title rather than a strict theological difference could be the reason for omitting the two sacraments of repair and the two social ones.

That these other four are acts with supernatural grace directly attached to them is apparent from the Bible.

the swelling expansion of papal 1:15 authority,


Again, defensible more from the Bible than from early Church History, especially the well known parts every one focusses on.

However, there are less known items in Church History that also favour the papacy.

financial developments in how salvation was pursued, especially with the treasury of merit and indulgences. 1:22 I'm sure you've heard of that.


First of all, purgatory and prayers for the dead are not simply about pursuing salvation.

They are about getting to Heaven with less or more ease on the way there.

Second, while indulgences are the general category to which prayers for the dead belong, and treasury of merits is a theory on why the Church can apply an indulgence to certain acts, neither of these is per se financial.

Third, Prayers for the dead is clearly attested before the general category and before this theory on why indulgences work.

Uh biblical ignorance, including overt restriction on access to vernacular 1:29 translations of scripture, especially among the leoty.


For some reason, AI spelled "laity" as "leoty", bear with me, I'm just copy-pasting that passage.

Let's compare to the US.

When would ignorance of the Constitution be more rampant?

1776 or now?

I would say now. The obvious reason being, so many have an interest in being only half and half attentive to what the text actually says, and ready to quote, not the text, but a résumé, which may be a bad one.

A Leftist saying the "separation between Church and State" belongs to the Constitution or the Rightist saying an illegal foreigner is not under US jurisdiction so doesn't enjoy due process are two examples.

Second reason, a hillbilly of 1776 who didn't know the Constitution very well was less likely to get noticed back then than someone displaying an ignorance of the Constitution in 2015 or 2025. When more people overall are recorded, more ignorant people are recorded.

As to restrictions, when these came, one can mention one had recently had problems in certain areas with laymen misinterpreting the Sermon on the Mount and inventing Manichaean heresies around it.

One could also see certain vernacular translations were inserting the misinterpretation. My favourite example is Matthew 6:7, whensoever a translation says "repetitions" it's the wrong translation, even if you add "vain" ones.

The Greek verb or verbal noun means "stutter-speak" or "stutter-speech" and Syriac and Coptic translate "stutter(ing)". St. Jerome doesn't, he supplies "use many words" from the context. There is one kind of verbal communication that can be compared to stuttering and sometimes involve it, and which is wordy. When you are nervously negotiating with someone more powerful than you, that you have to humour. That's very different from repeating simple phrases over and over. Just in case someone were to miss this, Greek and Roman Pagans didn't use any type of repetitive prayer.

Rather, they grouped four religions that did together as Bacchus worship. The very Oriental Hindus and Buddhists. The somewhat closer Oriental Jews and Christians.

Uh an ontological distinction between clergy and leoty. 1:35 This is a big one we sometimes miss.


And Ortlund misses, it's in the Bible.

For which cause I admonish thee, that thou stir up the grace of God which is in thee, by the imposition of my hands
[2 Timothy 1:6]

1) There is a grace remaining in St. Timothy
2) even when it needs to be stirred up
3) and it comes from the ordination and consecration by St. Paul.

The way priests are functioning in a mediatorial capacity between God and the 1:41 people.


The most blatant ways would be celebrating Mass for someone and giving absolution, both of which are in the Bible.

The Lord give mercy to the house of Onesiphorus: because he hath often refreshed me, and hath not been ashamed of my chain But when he was come to Rome, he carefully sought me, and found me The Lord grant unto him to find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou very well knowest
[2 Timothy 1:16-18]

He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained
[John 20:21-23]

uh the way priests are exe exempt from subjection to civil the 1:47 civil magistrate all kinds of implications from that


From the side of the Church or recognised by Civil Magistrates?

From the side of the Church it's there as soon as St. Peter isn't backing down from the Gospel or compromising it was Caesar worship even to save his life.

From the side of the Civil Magistrates, it took some time.

You recall, all you Lutherans and Luther fans, how Luther was received on Wartburg? There was a similar event when a vassal braved an Emperor to hide a clergyman before that.

Adelaide of Italy, in the 10th century the daughter, daughter-in-law, and widow in turn of three kings, was hard pressed by a local nobleman, Berengar of Ivrea, who declared himself king of Italy, abducted Adelaide, and tried to legitimize his reign by forcing Adelaide to marry his son Adalbert; but she escaped to Canossa. From the rocca of Canossa she called for German intervention. Canossa was inherited by Matilda of Tuscany, the principal Italian supporter of Pope Gregory VII, in 1052.

Matilda invited Pope Gregory VII to take refuge in Canossa Castle in 1076/77 during the dispute with Henry IV, the Holy Roman Emperor.


So, Henry IV was prior to this event asking Gregory VII to recognise his sovereignty, by stepping back when Henry deposed him on false accusations.

Gregory refused. He knew the accusations were false, and he knew Henry was trying to cash in on the very exceptional Sutri synod to make the Pope basically personal chaplain to the Emperor and so enemy of anyone who was the Emperor's enemy. He also knew, even at Sutri, the authority was given to Henry III from above.

Benedict IX has already once resigned before Sutri. Gregory VI resigned because the way he got papacy from Benedict was simoniacal. Sylvester III was banished to a monastery, but resigned for real while serving Pope St. Leo IX or his successor Victor II. None of them was clearly both a valid Pope and validly deposed by Henry III. And Gregory VII was not going to change that.

uh various worship restrictions so Latin only masses 1:54 restrictions on congregational participation


In the Latin rite, or as one would first have called it, the Roman Rite (with Gallican and Mozarabic and Ambrosian sister rites), going from Greek to Latin was a step to get closer to vernacular.
Because, in Rome, Greek had ceased to be commonly spoken, as it had been in the first century. In St. Peter's time, Rome was as bilingual between Latin and Greek as Los Angeles is between English and Spanish. In the time of Pope St. Damasus, Greek in Rome was practically dead.

When the Mass was given to England, under missionaries like Sts. Augustine of Canterbury and Paulinus of York, there were reasons to use Latin rather than Anglo-Saxon.

1) Every missionary was fluent in Latin, they might have spoken Anglo-Saxon with a noted accent;
2) Apart from runes, no one had written Anglo-Saxon yet (all we have of that wonderful literature is later than their time)
3) English was not a single language from Kent to Northumbria (which included both modern Yorkshire and modern Southern Scotland)
4) West of the English, the Welsh and Irish celebrated Mass in Latin, and relations had not yet soured as they would around the Synod of Whitby.

Whether or not St. Gregory I was right in adding that there were three languages on the Cross didn't make much difference. He just gave a more dignified reason than "right now we are not up to it."

As to Gothic, Tolkien notes, it's the only Germanic language that has the distinction of having been a liturgic language. He noted it because he loved Gothic. And Gothic had achieved this, because the missionary to the Goths was Wulfila, a native speaker of Gothic, who was also fluent in Greek. Unfortunately for Gothic, most of the time (at least after Wulfila) this Gothic liturgy was in the Arian para-Church, and so, it was not taken over again into the Catholic Church.

French with Provençal, Spanish with Galician, Italian, all of them came into existence because Latin pronunciation changed in a Roman area, starting with France, where basically the pronunciation of Bl. Alcuin of York, not too different from that of Pope St. Gregory the Great, replaced the pronunciation of the people, i e the vernacular. This led to successful attempts of writing the vernacular on its own terms, rather than as the pronunciation of Latin.

Once the vernaculars did exist on their own terms, they did so in areas where Latin was already the liturgic norm and when clamours for vernacular came around, they were often voiced by heretics. Waldensians, Protestants, and so on.

various legalistic rituals that had occurred very slowly evolving over time 2:01 concerning festival days and pilgrimages and fasts and so forth there are a lot of other examples these are just a few 2:07 representative examples


Are you mad at Christmas existing, even if it doesn't fall on a Sunday? Or are you mad that it became a prolonged holiday of 12 days and then Epiphany took over for another 8 days? The Reformers were so. They thought this was a waste of time when people could have worked for their employers.

Gustav Wasa reduced Christmas vacation from the 20 days to the first four days (Christmas, St. Stephen, St. John, Holy Innocents) in Sweden, while he encouraged the Reformers.

Pilgrimages are an even better example, if possible, on how the Reformers pushed everyone "back to work" and allowed less free time. Walking to St. James in Galicia takes some time, I took 50 days walking from Pamplona to Santiago, after hitchhiking the first 34 days (some exceptional days on each side).

And they are an excellent example on how gaining an indulgence (if that is what you went for, some went to ask the saint for a favour, which was my case) doesn't involve monetary expenses. Because the person who spends all his money during the pilgrimage isn't obliged to interrupt it and get back to earn more money, from then on he can beg and live off the pilgrimage, in principle all the way to Santiago and back to where he had his work.

The Protestant attitude of employers unwilling to put up with this, has in the meanwhile led to employers who hire women not putting up with pregnancy leaves and maternity leaves, and this has pushed for lots of abortions.

So, the development of pilgrimages certainly took some time (though they started to Jerusalem in Constantine's day), but so did the abolition of slavery, which was NOT the work of the Reformers. Catholics did it from one end of the Middle Ages (before 680 in Francia, now France, Germany, Austria, Switzerland and BeNeLux, 1066 in England, late 1400's or 1300's in Ragusa, 1346 in Sweden ...). Evangelicals did it. But Reformers were very much absent from this.

But some of these answers include an appeal to the Bible. Now, Ortlund would say (probably) on more than one, perhaps on all of these "that's not what the Bible actually means" and would challenge me to find early (ideally Ante-Nicene) readings explicitly agreeing with the Catholic sense. I retort the challenge, can he give the early readings explicitly agreeing with the Protestant sense? I don't think so. Or explicitly disagreeing with the Catholic sense other than one secondary questions? I don't think so either. If Jesus promised to be with His Church in connection with His task for Her to teach all truth, it makes sense if a reading consensus emerges later or gets terms later and it's still perfectly good.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
St. Valentine
14.II.2026

Romae, via Flaminia, natalis sancti Valentini, Presbyteri et Martyris, qui, post multa sanitatum et doctrinae insignia, fustibus caesus et decollatus est, sub Claudio Caesare.

[This refers to Claudius II]

lördag 31 januari 2026

Is Jesus Still Coming in the Flesh? Yes.


For many seducers are gone out into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh: this is a seducer and an antichrist.
Quoniam multi seductores exierunt in mundum, qui non confitentur Jesum Christum venisse in carnem : hic est seductor, et antichristus
[2 John 1:7]


This seems to be a past event in the Latin and English translations.

However, the Greek, has another take:

Ὅτι πολλοὶ πλάνοι ἐξῆλθον εἰς τὸν κόσμον, οἱ μὴ ὁμολογοῦντες Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν ...


so far, this agrees with the Latin and English. One could translate "deceiver" for "seducer" on the word. Pay attention:

... ἐρχόμενον ἐν σαρκί.


... coming in the flesh.

Coming as in now coming, coming at the same time as the denial of the coming.

οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ πλάνος καὶ ὁ ἀντίχριστος.


Again, agrees with the Latin and English.

How is Jesus coming now in the flesh? An end times video is referring to Galatians 2:20, here:

And I live, now not I; but Christ liveth in me. And that I live now in the flesh: I live in the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and delivered himself for me
[Galatians 2:20]


However, John 6 gives us another view:

ὁ τρώγων μου τὴν σάρκα, καὶ πίνων μου τὸ αἷμα, ἔχει ζωὴν αἰώνιον, κἀγὼ ἀναστήσω αὐτὸν τῇ ἐσχάτῃ ἡμέρᾳ.
He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath everlasting life: and I will raise him up in the last day
Qui manducat meam carnem, et bibit meum sanguinem, habet vitam aeternam : et ego resuscitabo eum in novissimo die
[John 6:55 (counted as 24 in the interlinear)]


Here both the Latin qui manducat and the Greek ὁ τρώγων are as concrete as "chewing" rather than just "eating". Or "he that eateth" ...

Sts. John, Polycarp and Irenaeus all were against a certain heresy called Gnosticism, and they denied both that Jesus is come two thousand years ago by now, but then a century or so ago, in the flesh, and also that he is coming (now) in the flesh in the Eucharist.

A little confirmation, of a thematic rather than strictly logic kind, is, John 6 also has the word "come" or "ἔρχομαι" in certain verses, like verse 45, "ἔρχεται πρὸς ἐμέ." In English and Latin cometh to me / venit ad me. Note that the normal past tense (the aorist) would be a different verb (like in English "go, went" rather than just "come, came").

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
St. John Bosco
31.I.2026

Augustae Taurinorum sancti Joannis Bosco, Confessoris, Societatis Salesianae ac Instituti Filiarum Mariae Auxiliatricis Fundatoris, animarum zelo et fidei propagandae conspicui, quem Pius Papa Undecimus Sanctorum fastis adscripsit.

lördag 17 januari 2026

Was Peter on the Tiber or the Euphrates?


Some Protestants like to think, though it's not the majority, that this verse proves St. Peter was in Nebuchadnezzar's literal city, not Nero's:

The church that is in Babylon, elected together with you, saluteth you: and so doth my son Mark
[1 Peter 5:13]


Now, one of these is John Calvin, who on this verse wrote:

Since, then, Peter had Mark as his companion when he wrote this Epistle, it is very probable that he was at Babylon: and this was in accordance with his calling; for we know that he was appointed an apostle especially to the Jews. He therefore visited chiefly those parts where there was the greatest number of that nation.


Now, where was the Babylonian Talmud compiled:

The Babylonian Talmud (Talmud Bavli) consists of documents compiled over the period of late antiquity (3rd to 6th centuries).[27] During this period, the most important of the Mesopotamian Jewish centres of learning included the Talmudic academies in Babylonia, such as Nehardea, Nisibis (now Nusaybin), Mahoza (al-Mada'in, south of modern Baghdad), Pumbedita (near present-day al Anbar Governorate), and the Sura Academy, which was probably located about 60 km (37 mi) south of Baghdad

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Talmud#Babylonian_Talmud


You may notice, none of these cities is Babylon itself. Have a look at the time for these "Talmudic academies in Babylonia" too:

The Talmudic academies in Babylonia, also known as the Geonic academies, were the center for Jewish scholarship and the development of Halakha during the Geonic era (from c. 589 to 1038 CE; Hebrew dates: 4349 AM to 4798 AM) in what is called "Babylonia" in Jewish sources.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Talmudic_academies_in_Babylonia


But some of these places were Jewish earlier:

So, if Peter was in Nehardea ("river of learning" is a nickname), why doesn't he say the Church in Anbar?

Nehardea was adjacent or identical to Anbar, a short distance from the modern city of Fallujah (formerly the site of Pumbedita).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nehardea


Some disagree that Fallujah is the site of Pumbedita, the location of which is disputed, some have even considered it was Anbar.

The city of Pumbedita was said to have possessed a Jewish population since the days of Second Temple of Jerusalem.[2]

The city had a large Jewish population and was famed for its Pumbedita Academy, whose scholarship, together with the city of Sura, gave rise to the Babylonian Talmud. The academy there was founded by Judah ben Ezekiel in the late third century. The academy was established after the destruction of the academy of Nehardea. Nehardea, being the capital city, was destroyed during the Persian–Palmyrian war.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pumbedita


Nisibis is originally not so Jewish, but becomes a centre of Jewish learning in the time of Judah ben Bathyra:

He must have lived before the destruction of the Temple, since he prevented a pagan in Jerusalem from partaking of the Paschal offering. Thereupon he received the message: "Hail to thee, Rabbi Judah ben Bathyra! You live in Nisibis, but your net is spread in Jerusalem".

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judah_ben_Bathyra


This passage refers to Nisibis as Nisibis, from the First Century, why would Peter refer to it as Babylon? Oh, to avoid detection? If code names are a thing, what about Rome?

And Sura is too late, not just for Jewish intellectual life, but for Jewish presence in Peter's time:

Abba Arikha arrived at Sura city to find no lively Jewish religious public life, and since he was worried about the continuity of the Jewish community in Babylonia, he left his colleague Samuel of Nehardea and began working to establish the yeshiva that would become Sura Academy. Upon Abba Arikha's arrival, teachers from surrounding cities and towns descended upon Sura. The Academy was formally founded in 225 CE, several years after Arikha's arrival.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sura_Academy


It may be noted, "CE" or "Common Era" is a secularist euphemism for "AD" or "Anno Domini".

But what about Babylon? Yes, the city of Nebuchadnezzar? Couldn't Peter just have been in Babylon?

La période parthe voit Babylone décliner et se dépeupler progressivement, les grands centres du pouvoir s'étant définitivement déplacés plus au nord sur le Tigre (Séleucie, Ctesiphon, et bien plus tard Bagdad). Mais ses monuments principaux sont encore en activité : Pline l'Ancien écrit au début du Ier siècle de notre ère que le temple continue à être actif, bien que la cité soit en ruines[68], et une inscription en grec datable du IIe siècle apr. J.-C. indique que le théâtre est encore restauré[69].

https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Babylone


I owe a few of you a translation:

The Parthian period sees Babylon decline and get depopulated gradually, the great centres of power being definitely displaced to further North on the Tigris (Seleucia, Ctesiphon, much later Baghdad). But the principal monuments are still active: Pliny the Elder states in the "beginning" of the first century of our era [more likely after AD 70] that the temple continues to be active, even if the city is in ruins, and a Greek inscription datable to the IInd C. AD indicates that the theatre is once more restored.


Footnotes 68 and 69 are to Pliny the Elder, Naturalis Historia, VI, 30, and to « The Babylon Theater Inscription - Livius [archive] », on livius.org

So, Babylon was arguably a) a small village within a vaster field of ruins, b) the seat of Marduk worship and Apollo worship and c) probably for these reasons not very frequented by Jews or Christians. If Calvin had been right about the motivation of Peter, Babylon is not a very likely city he would have gone to. Calvin is ignorant, where he isn't disingenious (except the issues where he's simply nearly a Roman Catholic).

By contrast, as I learned from one of the Protestant Bible scholars cited on Rome IS Babylon! The Bible Says So (And so do most PROTESTANT Scholars!), Rome has since the 2nd C. been cited as the "Babylon" of I Peter 5:13. I think we have a case.

Hans Georg Lundahl
Paris
St. Anthony the Great
17.I.2026

In Thebaide sancti Antonii Abbatis, qui, multorum Monachorum Pater, vita et miraculis praeclarissimus vixit; cujus gesta sanctus Athanasius insigni volumine prosecutus est. Ejus autem sacrum corpus, sub Justiniano Imperatore, divina revelatione repertum et Alexandriam delatum, in Ecclesia sancti Joannis Baptistae humatum fuit.